MCQ Quiz

1-1) Which of the following is responsible for the transmission of fibers from the right temporal (lateral) retina to the brain?

Right lateral geniculate body

Left optic radiation

Left optic tract

Right medial geniculate body

2) Which of the following nerves innervates Lateral rectus muscle:

Abducens nerve

Ophthalmic nerve

Oculomotor nerve

Trochlear nerve

3) A woman presents to emergency with an injury in the anterior wall of her middle ear. Which of the following structures would most likely be affected in this region?

Auditory tube

Mastoid antrum

Stapedius muscle

Fenestra vestibuli

4) When you asked patient to smile, you test which of the following nerves:

Facial nerve

Ophthalmic nerve (V1)

Mandibular nerve (V3)

Maxillary nerve (V2)

5) The nerve that innervate tip of the nose is:

Facial nerve

Ophthalmic nerve (V1)

Mandibular nerve (V3)

Maxillary nerve (V2)

6) The nerve that leaves the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen & enters the perineum through the lesser sciatic foramen is:

Sciatic nerve

Pudendal nerve

Tibial nerve

Common peroneal nerve

7) Which of the following is correct about the median nerve:

It crosses the brachial artery and continues downward on medial side of brachial artery.

It is the main motor nerve of the intrinsic muscles of hand.

It exits cubital fossa by penetrating supinator muscle.

It travels downward in the cubital fossa anterior to lateral epicondyle.

It passes behind the medial epicondyle of the humerus.

8) Which of the following is correct about thoracic course of left phrenic nerve:

Its terminal branch descends through caval opening of diaphragm.

It crosses over the left side of the aortic arch.

It passes in front of the root of the right lung.

Runs along the right side of the pericardium.

9) Which of the following is developed from 2nd pharyngeal arch?

Tensor tympani

Tensor veli palatini

Stapedius muscle

Anterior belly of digastric

10) The external acoustic meatus develops from which of the following structures?

First pharyngeal arch

First pharyngeal groove

Second pharyngeal arch

First pharyngeal membrane

11) Which of the following best described cell bodies of post ganglionic sympathetic system:

Cell bodies are located in prevertebral & sympathetic trunk.

Cell bodies are located at lateral column of spinal thoracic and lumbar segments.

Cell bodies are located in dorsal root ganglia.

Cell bodies are located in adrenal medulla only.

12) Which of the following is correct regarding the thoracic splanchnic nerve?

Contains sympathetic fibers.

Composed of unmyelinated axons only.

Lesser splanchnic nerve emerges from L1–L2.

Carries parasympathetic fibers.

13) Patient comes to emergency with damage in fibrous part of the eye. Which of the following structures forms this part?

Choroid and iris

Sclera and cornea

Retina and ciliary body

Lens and zonular fibers

14) Which of the following is correct about ANS?

All post synaptic sympathetic fibers are adrenergic.

Presynaptic sympathetic fibers are longer than parasympathetic fibers.

All preganglionic fibers are cholinergic.

All parasympathetic fibers release norepinephrine.

1) Which of the following is correct regarding Fovea centralis of retina?

Fovea contains more rods.

Fovea has the highest diameter in retina.

Fovea has more visual acuity than any other structure in eye.

Fovea is absent of cones.

2) Which of the following is correct during accommodation?

Tension in suspensory ligament is increased.

Refractive power of cornea is increased.

Accommodation range is increased with age.

Lens becomes flatter.

3) Which of the following is correct regarding aqueous humour?

Produced by ciliary muscles.

Its pressure equals mean arterial pressure.

It is drained into Schlemm canal.

It drains into episcleral veins directly.

4) Which of the following is correct regarding photoreceptors?

Rods contain photopsin pigment.

Cones are more numerous than rods.

Cones are concentrated in the optic disc.

Rods are excited by a small amount of light.

5) The role of tympanic membrane in attenuation reflex, it:

Increases frequency of sound entering inner ear.

Reduces intensity of sound reaching inner ear.

Reduces loudness of sound reaching inner ear by contraction of tensor tympani muscle.

Decreases frequency of sound entering inner ear.

6) Which of the following is correct regarding vestibular apparatus?

Macula of the saccule is situated vertically.

Hair cells are depolarized when bent away from kinocilium.

Cupula bends due to inertia of perilymph.

Macula detects angular acceleration.

7) Semicircular canal is activated by:

Rotation with constant velocity

Linear acceleration

Jumping up and down

After stopping rotation

During the beginning of angular movement

8) Which of the following is correct regarding hair cells of ear?

There are more inner hair cells.

Inner hair cells are mostly supplied by efferent fibers.

Hair cells produce more action potentials with loud sounds.

There are three rows of inner hair cells.

9) Which of the following has the lowest conduction velocity?

C fibers

B fibers

Alpha A fibers

Delta A fibers

Gamma A fibers

10) Which of the following is incorrect regarding peripheral nerves?

Hypocalcemia increases nerve excitability.

Compound action potential is reduced in demyelination.

Neurotrophins are important for neuron survival.

Equilibrium potential of potassium is about −90 mV.

11) Which of the following is correct regarding body temperature?

It is less precisely regulated in children than adults.

It decreases during ovulation.

It is lowest in the evening.

Oral temperature equals core temperature.

It decreases during shivering.

12) Which of the following is responsible for transmitting fibers from the medial geniculate body to the auditory cortex?

Acoustic radiation

Superior olivary nucleus

Lateral lemniscus

Inferior colliculus

11) How many cartridges of mepivacaine 1.5% can be safely administered to a child of 18 kg (Note: MRD = 5 mg/kg)?

5

4.2

3.3

9

2) Regarding the use of local anesthetic drugs, choose the correct answer:

Allergy to one amide local anesthetic rules out the use of another amide.

Bupivacaine can be safely given to lactating females.

Mepivacaine can be safely used in obstetric anesthesia.

Lidocaine can be safely used during the second trimester of pregnancy.

3) The drug of choice for treatment of narcolepsy is:

Fenethylline

Methylphenidate

Modafinil

LSD

4) Choose the incorrect answer regarding drugs of abuse:

Varenicline works as an adenosine A1 receptor inhibitor.

The active ingredient of cannabinoids is delta-9 tetrahydrocannabinol.

Ecstasy is used as a recreational drug.

Amphetamine could cause bruxism.

5) Which of the following drugs is contraindicated for treatment of glaucoma:

Echothiophate

Cyclopentolate

Carbachol

Pilocarpine

Timolol

6) Choose the correctly matched drug–indication pair:

Methyldopa – pregnancy hypertension

Terbutaline – induction of labor

Propranolol – acute asthma

Digoxin – ventricular tachycardia

7) Choose the correct answer regarding the pharmacotherapy of myasthenia gravis:

Edrophonium is used for acute management of myasthenia gravis.

Oral neostigmine is used in chronic management of myasthenia gravis.

Atropine can be used to reverse the toxicity of all these medications.

Pyridostigmine is contraindicated in myasthenia gravis.

8) How many cartridges of lidocaine 2% with a vasoconstrictor (1:100,000) can be safely administered to a child of 29 kg? (Note: maximum dose = 4.5 mg/kg)

4.5

2.5

8

9

6

9) Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the use of local anesthetic agents?

Patients with hepatic dysfunction are more susceptible to adverse effects of ester local anesthetics.

Bupivacaine is best used in breastfeeding women.

Lidocaine is unsafe during the second trimester of pregnancy.

Mepivacaine should be used in obstetric anesthesia.

Allergy to one ester local anesthetic rules out the use of another ester.

10) Which of the following drug is used to treat Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder?

Methylphenidate

Cocaine

Nicotine

Diazepam

11) Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding drugs of abuse?

Fenethylline is a mix of amphetamine and theophylline.

MDMA can cause bruxism and trismus.

Anandamide is an endogenous cannabinoid.

LSD inhibits phosphodiesterase enzyme.

12) Which of the following is CORRECT about treatment of myasthenia gravis?

Edrophonium is used to treat myasthenia gravis.

Physostigmine is used as antidote for toxicity of this drug.

Oral neostigmine is not used in myasthenia gravis.

This drug has cholinergic agonist effect on nicotinic receptors.

Pyridostigmine is used only for diagnosis.

13) Which of the following is not used to treat glaucoma?

Carbachol

Echothiophate

Timolol

Tropicamide

14) Which of the following is correct regarding drugs used in CVS disorders?

Dobutamine is used to treat chronic heart failure.

Methyldopa is an alpha-2 agonist used to treat pregnancy hypertension.

Phentolamine is contraindicated in pheochromocytoma.

Beta blockers are first-line in diabetic hypertension.

15) Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Mirabegron – overactive bladder

Terbutaline – induction of labor

Atropine – glaucoma

Propranolol – asthma

1) A 47-year-old female presents with ascending paralysis. Upon arrival at the emergency department, she exhibits difficulty breathing and is intubated. A lumbar puncture reveals clear, colorless cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) with the following findings: glucose 65 mg/dL (serum level is 100 mg/dL), protein 90 mg/dL, all lymphocytes. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

Systemic lupus erythematosus

Vitamin B12 deficiency

Viral pneumonia

Guillain-Barré syndrome

2) Which of the following is incorrect regarding multiple sclerosis?

It has high frequency in Europe and USA.

Active plaques show edema with perivascular lymphocytic infiltration.

Oligoclonal IgG bands against myelin antigen are present in CSF.

It exhibits relapsing–remitting type in only 15% of cases.

1) Which of the following shows Negri bodies?

Rabies virus

Poliovirus

Herpes simplex virus

Influenza virus

2) All of the following are caused by arboviruses except:

Lassa fever

Dengue fever

West Nile fever

Yellow fever

3) Which of the following is the main cause of herpangina?

Coxsackievirus A

Coxsackievirus B

Poliovirus

Echovirus

4) Regarding transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSE), which of the following samples has the highest infectivity?

Whole blood

Urine

Cerebrospinal fluid

Eye tissue

Serum

5) Which of the following is the commonest form of Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease?

Sporadic

Familial

Inherited

Iatrogenic

Variant

6) Which of the following viruses is the causative agent of herpangina?